Let $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be defined by $f(x) = \dfrac{1}{x}$, $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}$. Then $f$ is
🎥 Video solution / Text Solution of this question is given below:
$f(x) = \dfrac{1}{x}$ is not defined for $x = 0$, hence it’s not a function from $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$.
If domain were $\mathbb{R} - {0}$, then it would be bijective.